i recently learnt that the origins of 'the man with no name' came from the american producers when the Dollars Trilogy was released back-to-back in the US in 1967.
Given this addition to the character, should we really consider clint's character to be 'the man with no name'?
After all, he is referred to as 'joe', 'manco/monco', and 'blondie' in all three of the films. i wonder what leone's intention was...was he really supposed to be the nameless man? this has been getting at me for a while...
theres an interesting view from jools braithwaite at:
www.fistfulofwesterns.com (go under the sergio leone section)